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This all seems coherent to me, but in turning your attention to Lobo's omission, re Tomassello, of the scene of joint attention, you seem to be omitting what is the key hinge to Lobo's argument: we know that modern humans who don't acquire language in their first years, end up unable ever to acquire it, so how was it possible for presumably adult male "protohumans" on the originary scene to have (whatever the genetic or physiological prerequisites for language) been able to share a sign? Is it just a question of the difference between being able to share and reproduce a single sign/ritual (which maybe no one noticed even children raised by wolves can do) and being initiated into some kind of mature language requiring a greater neural-infrastructural development? Lobo does not really explain how a scene of shared attention can develop from twins with a shared genetic mutation, not unlike those who assume language developed between mother and child, but i think the question remains... the early years of human development are obviously key to what makes us linguistic beings.

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